I have to be vague and perhaps this ruins whether answers can be helpful… but I’ll try anyway.

A VOIP provider in state X violated the laws of that state by disconnecting a customer without warning. Overseas customer complains to state X. State X basically says: the telecom is not just operating locally. Your grievance is in your state; not our problem. You have to contact your own state’s regulator.

Oof. So suppose I moved to Canada. The VOIP provider does not even know I moved (though they might guess from my IP address). How could they be expected to comply with Canadian law? Suppose that’s really true. So then what? I sue them in Canada, then have the Canadian judgement domesticated in state X by a judge in that state?

Shitshow indeed. The VOIP provider operating out of state X probably has at least one customer in state X. Let’s assume that’s true. Would they only have to comply with the laws of state X specifically in the context of state X residents?