Illegal how? By us law? Was it not passed by congress? I saw a lot of republicans in congress trying to tie israeli aid to ukraine aid. Somehow the president could not bypass their shananigans so don’t know what you are talking about.
Yes, by law. specifically the Leahy Law and the Foreign Assistance Act. Congress can appropriate the money, it can even be spent to buy the military equipment. The equipment itself cannot ship until those laws are satisfied. Old man Leahy even came out and said Israel is a perfect example of why the Leahy Law was made.
Illegal how? By us law? Was it not passed by congress? I saw a lot of republicans in congress trying to tie israeli aid to ukraine aid. Somehow the president could not bypass their shananigans so don’t know what you are talking about.
Yes, by law. specifically the Leahy Law and the Foreign Assistance Act. Congress can appropriate the money, it can even be spent to buy the military equipment. The equipment itself cannot ship until those laws are satisfied. Old man Leahy even came out and said Israel is a perfect example of why the Leahy Law was made.
so how exactly was it broken? I mean I know congress appropriated the money.
https://www.state.gov/key-topics-bureau-of-democracy-human-rights-and-labor/human-rights/leahy-law-fact-sheet/
Their point is it doesn’t matter if Congress appropriated the money unless Congress also repeals that law.
I feel there is quite a bit of individual interpretation going on here.